nor does it suggest that we wouldn't both be equal successor (accessor?) states.
I'm pretty sure that nobody is arguing against this point. Or at the very least, I'm not. But we're not talking about the English-Scottish relationship now, we're talking about it back in the 1700s, when the two countries merged. As you've mentioned before, the UK parliament isn't English any more, but back in the 1700s it certainly was, given the dominance of the English MPs compared to the Scottish ones.
England's dominance within the Union does not equate with them being the primary initiator
I suppose not, but I still feel that England was the primary initiator of the union. Only by England's actions (ie. bribery) did the Scottish parliament accept the union. Scotland by itself would have never accepted the union, or at least union in 1707.
Remember, at the time of the union the royal family was scottish.
Only in hereditary only, I'm afraid. After King James the VI/I, the royal family quickly became estranged with Scotland (mostly over religious issues, as far as I can tell) and enamoured of England. Charles I was born in the Scotland, but his coronation in 1633 was his first visit to the country. The monarchs after him were pretty much all born in London, which I doubt helped with their identities as Scotsmen. Of course this is all tangential to the discussion about the Scottish/English Union, but I love blabbing about history, so eh.
Anyways I probably should get some sleep, so I'll just quit right here. We're pretty much just talking across each other at this point anyway, so I doubt that further discussion would be very profitable. Good night everyone.