#1 I struggle to find ANY sources that aren't 'You should avoid vaccinations because they will rape your dog!' levels of crazy. Equally, I have yet to find anything else saying that there have actually been any widely-distributed non-clinically trialled vaccines that have been dangerous.
What you are describing here is
"I don't have any evidence [of vaccines causing actual damage]." Which I agree with.
What you said before was a strong causal claim that
"Vaccines rarely cause actual damage." Those two statements are
not at all equivalent. You (or anybody) simply not having proof of something in your hands =/= it not existing.
A lack of clearevidence for damage is a necessary STARTING point, but not the whole game. What you have to do next to be valid scientifically is just go out and run a whole ****load of research subjects, in order to establish that "Well, whatever the rate of ___ complication is, if it exists, we at least know it's below such and such an amount based on the statistical power of our study" until you are able to make that claim at a rate below the known benefits of the treatment, at which point, and ONLY at which point you can confirm for sure that the treatment is worth it.
This is fairly easy to do if the risk is something like heart surgery, where you only have to establish lower than a pretty high rate of risk for the benefits to outweigh it. But with vaccines, the marginal benefits are so small in places like the US now that all of the studies use populations that are extremely smaller than the necessary comparison threshold (which is the case), which means you cannot currently say that the treatment is worth it here and now.
For example, a reaction to Polio. A few people will die, it's inevitable because that stuff just happens. But What would you prefer? Possible paralysis for the rest of your life and possibly death vs. possible temporary... well, lots of things (possibly) and a lower possibility of death?

My preference regarding paralysis? Well I'm not sure, because rate of paralysis hasn't clearly changed in a consistent way.
As you can see here from WHO data above, started out looking pretty decent (although note the huge drop for years at the beginning with hardly any vaccination, which hints at fresh water distribution in major population areas recently, etc. as a factor), but then later in direct correlation with vaccination rates, polio cases declined and "non-polio acute flaccid paralysis" rates shot up.
Is this proof of anything? No. Reporting officers went up too, but not in a way that fully explains that steady continually climbing trend or its full shape (also reporting officers were much more concerned about reporting polio). Nebulous, unclear, quasi-questionable in terms of the definitions they might be using... this is exactly what I'm talking about.
This kind of sketchiness stretches all the way back to the 1950s original campaigns. Shortly after the release of the salk vaccine, for instance, they massively
changed the definition of polio from requiring only paralysis observation on two occasions 24 hours apart to requiring observations of paralysis BOTH 10-20 days after other symptom onset and 50-70 days apart.
Which is fine in itself to tighten standards, except when you go places like Wikipedia and see statements like:
In the U.S, following a mass immunization campaign promoted by the March of Dimes, the annual number of polio cases fell from 35,000 in 1953 to 5,600 by 1957.
i.e. spanning both sides of the definition change... and since data more precise than the original definition doesn't exist, thus including essentially ALL paralysis by any means on one side, versus only poliomyelitis on the other...
The more you look into it, the more it becomes pretty clear it was a bunch of statisticians running around like chickens with their heads cut off throwing out random "data" with totally different meanings and scant accountability.
I'm not suggesting they were corrupt or conspiratorial. I'm just suggesting the data is crap and tells you almost nothing you want to know, and continues to be like that. Here's a snapshot of WHO data from 2000:

30,625 cases of AFP
2,971 polio cases
719 wild virus polio cases
Several issues here:
1) What are the other 2,971 - 719 = 2,252 polio cases from, if not wild polio...? Are these just unknown? Or is some (unreported) percentage of these vaccine-induced polio cases? If so, what percentage, and how does it compare to otherwise expected incidence rates? If some percentage is, and if it is approaching or higher than 719, would that suggest a different optimal vaccination rate? Even if none of that number IS vaccine-induced polio, where are the numbers that ARE? Shouldn't we be keeping track of that?
2) Why do we care about polio so much when it represents only 2% of acute flaccid paralysis cases?
3) Why should we trust a vaccine that reduces a disease that consists of a tiny minority of the symptoms we actually care about, yet correlates at the same time with a significant increase in reported cases of the other remaining huge majority of paralysis cases? Shouldn't we be... like... at
least running more studies on that to see if it's an actual effect (which we are not doing)?
For someone demanding everyone give evidence for obvious things, you sure are making some pretty huge assertions without evidence there. Especially given we've seen exactly the opposite. In places with low vaccination? It is coming back. Outbreaks are occurring, and in greater numbers, specifically in places where idiots don't get vaccinated
Where exactly are you talking about? Do you have maps, etc.?
Note also that I said "very far below 1960s levels" (and thus potentially requiring a recalibration of general risk/reward compared to initial efforts) not "nonexistent."
Yes let's just assume a (very weak) linear trend will go on forever, that's always a valid assumption. By the way did you know that everyone will soon own 50 smartphones each?
Did you not click on the very next image I had in that same post addressing exactly this response ahead of time?